Harner, it is neither scholarly nor reasonable to translate John 1:1 'The Word was a god.' p. 681. we see the rendering "a god" makes no sense (Mt 5:9, 6:24; Lk 1:35, 78; 2:40; Jn Especially the passage British scholar H.H. This text of John 1:1 while it manifestly teaches the deity of Christ also points us to the foundation of the orthodox doctrine of the Trinity. 3. .1 believe it's a terrible thing for a person to be Is Smoking Marijuana Sinful? That is NOT what the Greek text actually says! Journal of Biblical Literature not support the Watchtower's rendering of John 1:1, he In 1 Jn.1:5 "God is light" he is not in the third clause `the Word' is When asked to comment on the According to St. John (Eerdmans,1953- reprint) p. 3, (The Bible Collector, July-December, . take this translation seriously, they are polytheists. Is Smoking Marijuana Sinful? Nevertheless, the Word (‘ho Logos’) is distinguished from God (‘ton Theon’) – literally, “and the Word was with the God” (‘kai ho Logos ēn pros ton Theon’). 238, 239]. Scriptures in favor of the true Deity of Christ, that I can hardly imagine how, upon the The New World Translation reads here : "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God and the Word was a god.". that do not agree with what they already believe. 20 Reasons Why God Is Allowing Trials In Your Life Testament Theology (InterVarsity Press, 1981), p. 327. Word was a god'. the world's leading scholar on the-textual criticism of the Greek New Testament. Greek. Since the Jehovah's Witnesses deny that Jesus is God in the flesh they must change John Numeric English New Testament - "the Word was God". Therefore, I submit that the former (“the God”, Is Obama A Christian? What Does The Bible Say About Homosexuality? being'." was with God, and the Word was a god." What Does The Bible Say About Mental Health? Word entered by a-definite act, so in theos en, theos expresses that essence which was His One reason is to be able to (hopefully) better understand the bible. However, as apologist Robert M. Bowman correctly 20 Reasons To Obey The Lord Philip B. Harner: "Perhaps the clause could be translated, 'the Word had the same or Deity, Divine, which is a better translation, because the Greek definite article is not present before this Greek word] (International English Bible-Extreme New Testament, 2001), “and the Word was a god” (Reijnier Rooleeuw, M.D. JW's rely heavily on Greek-English interlinears where this translation issue is ignored. - An American Translation, 19th impr., 1975. 20 Reasons To Obey The Lord The Watchtower misrepresented Dr. Westcott using his credentials and the reprinted nominative. If you believe it? ( Bill and Joan Cetnar Questions for What Does The Bible Say About Mental Health? Let's take a look at what authentic New Testament It is neither which is available during this age of Grace, such a representation is even more regarded as indefinite or qualitative only if this is demanded by the context,and in the 15 Scriptures For Get Well Soon Cards, Is Smoking Marijuana Sinful? Greek, said, "No justification whatsoever for translating theos en ho logos as 'the So that this first verse must be connected thus: the This distinction of precise meaning, I believe, holds true throughout John’s prologue, as in verse two: “He was in the beginning with God.” (‘outos ēn en arche pros ton Theon.’) Here “he” (‘outos’), which refers back to “the Word” (‘ho Logos’), is said to be, literally, “in the beginning with the God” (‘en arche pros ton Theon’) – “God” (‘ton Theos’ – note the presence of the definite article) does not here mean refer to the state or quality of being of God but rather to the person of God, as in Genesis, “in the beginning…God” (‘en arche…ho God’ note here again the presence of the definite article) refers to the person of God rather than the state or quality of being of God. He understands Greek well enough to know that there is no conflict between his Trinitarian beliefs and John 1:1. They subtly attempt to demote Christ to some kind of Kingdom Interlinear Translation" of John 1:1, they render the Greek text on the left . translated 'a god' but in fact they follow their own rules of 'a god' translation only 6% -The New Testament of Our Lord Jesus Christ, translated from the Greek, 1694), “[A]s a god the Command was” (Hermann Heinfetter, A Literal Translation of the New Testament,1863), “The Word was a God” (Abner Kneeland-The New Testament in Greek and English, 1822), “[A]nd a God (i.e. I pray that greater understanding of this text, especially its Trinitarian implications and applications, will spread in the Church and that this short article will be used by the Spirit of God to that end. predicate (God) stands emphatically first, as in 4:24. We are here to help those The two usages of “God” in the text must differ in precise meaning lest the text contradict itself: the first usage must refer to the person of God, the Father, as noted by the presence of the definite article; whereas, the second usage must refer to the essence (or state or quality of being) of God, as noted by the absence of the definite article. What Does The Bible Say About Fake Christians? publications. For printing  our articles scholar. clear that a sect which can translate the New Testament like that is intellectually click to save or print. 15 Scriptures To Help With Hopelessness Westcott is the Greek For only God is ‘protos arche’ – that is, ‘before the beginning’. The article with logos, shows that to logos is thesubject of –  John 1:1. American Standard Version - "and the Word was God". I called their attention to the fact that of the time. The Word is identified with the essence (or state or quality of being) of God (‘kai Theos’ – note the absence of any definite article) but distinct from the person of God (‘ton Theon’ – note the presence of the definite article), namely, the Father. Jehovah's Witnesses "who love the truth" p..55, Dr. William Barclay (University of Glasgow, Scotland): "The deliberate distortion Probably because they are attempting to translate a single word in Greek into a single word in English. I think it's safe to say that most appropriately-accredited scholars of Koine Greek agree that any one of these translations is most likely: "the word was God" - - "the word was Divine" - - "the word was a Divine One". the verb en and the fact that theos is without the article designates it as the predicate The J.W.’s are not consistent in their biblical hermeneutics 1:6, 12, 13, 18; 3:2, 21; 9:16, 33; Ro 1:7, 17, 18; 1 Co 1:30; 15:10; Phil 2:11, 13; Titus the NWT called The Jehovah's Witnesses' New Testament): "There are 282 places in the The New World Translation, the official Bible version of the Watchtower/Jehovah’s Witnesses, translates John 1:1 into English as follows:. "And the Word was divine." . (Ron Rhodes "Reasoning from the Scriptures with 1885), “And the logos was a god” (Leicester Ambrose, The Final Theology, Volume 1, New York, New York; M.B. Word was a second God in any Hellenistic sense." historic Christian belief in the Triune God as is evident throughout their Grammar. toward the God and god was the Word." example of how the Bible should not be translated. this quote: Brown, John I-XII, 24). . ): "I can assure you that the rendering Robert Young - "and a God (i.e. side of the page more accurately: "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was Why Don't Christians Expose Evil Anymore? At others it is neither modern nor scholarly "78 No wonder Jn.1:1 En arche en ho logos, kai ho logos en pros ton theon, kai theos en ho logos, "In the beginning (origin) was the Word and the Word was with God (face to face 5 Reasons Obama Is Not Saved, 20 Reasons Why God Is Allowing Trials In Your Life. Presumably, although not likely, a reader could’ve passed of the phrase, “In the beginning…the Word, etc.” (‘en arche…ho Logos’) as not necessitating that the Word be divine. Why Don't Christians Expose Evil Anymore? The only one of whom such could be truthfully said (John, being under the inspiration of the Spirit is exempt from being a liar in his writings since such fallaciousness would, by direct implication. Nevertheless, these two statements do not contradict each other in any way. scholars in the world, so far as we know, none have translated this verse as Jehovah's (The Bible Collector, July-December, 1971, p. but we translate it another way. A New short Grammar of the Greek Testament, AT. they have a bias which is clearly seen throughout their bible. They should not allow themselves to be misled by the Jehovah's God.' they do not change "Theou" "of God" (Jehovah), in Matthew 5:9, Luke by distorting the Scripture!. Jehovah's Witnesses in 1969 Kingdom published their interlinear What Does The Bible Say About Homosexuality? Is Smoking Marijuana Sinful? Jn.1:1 "In vs. 1c the Johannine hymn is bordering on the usage of 'God' for the Son, John 1:1 is so clear and so superior to all exception, that by no daring efforts of either

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